Mathematics of Poker: Implied Pot Odds
by Michael
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Introduction
In this article we will cover...- Why implied pot odds are better than pot odds
- Why everything depends on your opponents' willingness to pay
The article "Outs, Odds and Pot Odds" introduced you to the maths used to determine the profitability of a draw. You count your outs and determine the likelihood of one of these cards showing up in the community. Then you compare the odds to the pot odds to see whether or not you should stay in the hand.
But this is only the first step. The pot odds only take the money already in the pot into account; it is likely that more money will be invested before the showdown is reached. This is where the implied pot odds come into play. They factor the money still likely to enter the pot into the pot odds equation. Of course, you can't know how much money your opponents will continue to invest in the hand. Implied pot odds are not pure mathematics, there is also a fair amount of speculation involved.
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#1
mouse89, 05 Oct 08 15:04
cheers#2
Ironvein, 02 Jan 09 15:28
langauge changed halfway through. can't read it.#3
gheecko, 08 Jan 09 23:47
nice#4
stevenjlee, 17 Jan 09 23:50
The go to this link article is wrong - links to 1032 instead of 1033#5
dandycal, 01 Feb 09 17:12
There is a slight error in Example 1: MP2 is supposedly in the pot, but he is not showed calling bets nor is his money counted in the pot. Yet he is always counted in "active players".#6
HabloConElvis, 14 Feb 09 22:07
I have a question about the Call20 rule. Matematically, with a pocket pair 99 - 22, your possibility to hit three of a kind on the flop is 12% (which is about 1 time out of 8). So why the Call20 rule? Wouldn't it be good to call even if your and your opponent stacks are only 10-times the size of the bet? Is it becouse you must consider that:(1) Your opponent will not allways be willing to go all-in,
(2) Even when you hit three of a kind you can still be beaten by a straight, flush,...
(3) When you hit three of a kind but think that your opponent is on a draw, you must make a big raise and take the pot.
Please correct me if I'm wrong! Thanks!
#7
purpleshoes21, 27 May 09 17:55
It's because of number 1 Hablo.#8
Koshburger, 15 Jan 10 10:35
ok#9
andreinasta, 06 Nov 10 01:19
On example 2 You say that somebody needs 4:1 to call that 4 dollars on the flop, but having to overs and a flushdraw you only need 0,85:1 to break even. So why 4:1?#10
andreinasta, 06 Nov 10 01:20
*"two overs" not "to overs" :)#11
nuteLka, 12 Feb 11 11:23
Having two overs and a flushdraw is 15 outs so 2:1 and pot odds are 2.7:1 so u r free to call , but that checkraise indicates a set so outs are cutted to 9 for flushdraw and if you check the chart from flop to turn its 4:1 on a flushdraw.#12
Strongsl, 06 Sep 11 02:16
good!#13
ilovemagic, 10 Feb 12 02:23
in hand number 2, with AQs, you say "you bet 1.25" when in reality you RAISE 1.25.