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# Pot Odds

• Bronze
Joined: 09.05.2010
When we use the ratio method, it appears to me that we are wasting important data in our approximations.

For example, in the strategy tutorial for pot odds, the question is:

- Do we make a lucrative call on our draw?

. We hold 54 clubs suited.
. The board is: Qs 7h 6h

The pot is 8\$ and the opponent bets 2\$.

Q: The answer given to this question is that Calling and Folding hold the same value, based on pot odds.
We need pot odds better than 5-1.
We have 8 outs out of 47 cards, that is roughly 5-1.
So the odds are the same.

However, I don't believe in this explanation based on these stats:
8/47 = approx 0,17%
10/2 = 5 --> 1/5 = 0,20% --> We pay 20% of the total to get 10\$

In order to be lucrative or at least break even we should be paying only (in the minimum for break even) 0,17% of the total.
• 14 replies
• Post removed

• Bronze
Joined: 10.08.2014
Implied odds

"Implied odds are calculated in situations where the player expects to fold in the following round if the draw is missed, thereby losing no additional bets, but expects to gain additional bets when the draw is made. Since the player expects to always gain additional bets in later rounds when the draw is made, and never lose any additional bets when the draw is missed, the extra bets that the player expects to gain, excluding his own, can fairly be added to the current size of the pot. This adjusted pot value is known as the implied pot"
• Basic
Joined: 20.05.2013
If no more money goes in , it is a mistake to chase the draw if you don't get 17% pot odds or bette, 20% will not do it.
• Bronze
Joined: 10.08.2014
Bullshit, if u got possition and undoubtedly a prospect to be paid off (draw isnt that obvious) - forget about those 3%
• Basic
Joined: 20.05.2013
Originally posted by Berezovaya
Bullshit, if u got possition and undoubtedly a prospect to be paid off (draw isnt that obvious) - forget about those 3%
Obv you don't read before you reply to something
• Basic
Joined: 14.07.2015
• Bronze
Joined: 24.05.2010
feels like we should have some implied odds to make up for those 3 % in most cases?
• Basic
Joined: 20.05.2013
Originally posted by jonnyZ
feels like we should have some implied odds to make up for those 3 % in most cases?
Yes, if pot was 9.76\$ , then we get the correct odds vs a 2\$ bet (17%) . So in this case, since the pot is only 8\$ , we have to make an additional 1.76\$ when we hit.
• Bronze
Joined: 24.05.2010
You are talking about direct pott odds which you are correct that we dont have. But in most cases,imo, we have implied pott odds to make up for these 3 %. Do you see the difference?
• Basic
Joined: 20.05.2013
lol wtf
• Bronze
Joined: 24.05.2010
wtf what?
• Bronze
Joined: 02.12.2007
There is nothing wrong here. Calling in this situation is profitable.

Explanation:

We have 8 outs here in a total of 47 cards remaining => odds = (47-8):8 = 4.875 : 1

We need at least the same pot odds to be break even. In the this case, we have 5:1 actual pot odds
5:1 > 4.875:1 => it's profitable to call!

Your understanding above is wrong I'm fraid
• Bronze
Joined: 24.05.2010
Oh your right thunderbird we actually have direct pott odds to call to
• Bronze
Joined: 08.07.2015
I would fold because person who bet 2 will make flush on the river