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# simple maths question with implied odds

• Bronze
Joined: 09.01.2012
it's obviously retardedly simple.......my mind just went blank after thinking for so long. You just subtract the inverse of the equivalent decimals.

1/.2 - 1/.30 = 5 - 3.3333r = 1.6666667
Multiply that by the amount to call, \$15.....and get \$25

fml
• Bronze
Joined: 17.04.2011
Originally posted by Wolfjustice
1/.2 - 1/.30 = 5 - 3.3333r = 1.6666667
Multiply that by the amount to call, \$15.....and get \$25
This is the same thing, it's a percentage to odds conversion.

80%-20% = 4 : 1, same as your (5 - 1) : 1
it's just a different type of ratio, if you subtract it's calculation by 1 you got what you call odds against.
• Bronze
Joined: 09.01.2012
Originally posted by cpers
This is the same thing, it's a percentage to odds conversion.
It's the same function, that's precisely what I wanted.

There are no ratios directly involved however.

1/.2 1/.3 are fractions not "different types of ratios".

I know what you are saying though, but there was a specific reason why I didn't want to involve ratios, even though this does the same thing.