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simple maths question with implied odds

    • Wolfjustice
      Wolfjustice
      Bronze
      Joined: 09.01.2012 Posts: 38
      it's obviously retardedly simple.......my mind just went blank after thinking for so long. You just subtract the inverse of the equivalent decimals.

      1/.2 - 1/.30 = 5 - 3.3333r = 1.6666667
      Multiply that by the amount to call, $15.....and get $25

      fml
    • cpers
      cpers
      Bronze
      Joined: 17.04.2011 Posts: 566
      Originally posted by Wolfjustice
      1/.2 - 1/.30 = 5 - 3.3333r = 1.6666667
      Multiply that by the amount to call, $15.....and get $25
      This is the same thing, it's a percentage to odds conversion.

      80%-20% = 4 : 1, same as your (5 - 1) : 1
      it's just a different type of ratio, if you subtract it's calculation by 1 you got what you call odds against.
    • Wolfjustice
      Wolfjustice
      Bronze
      Joined: 09.01.2012 Posts: 38
      Originally posted by cpers
      This is the same thing, it's a percentage to odds conversion.
      It's the same function, that's precisely what I wanted.

      There are no ratios directly involved however.

      1/.2 1/.3 are fractions not "different types of ratios".

      I know what you are saying though, but there was a specific reason why I didn't want to involve ratios, even though this does the same thing.
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