
22.11.2007, 16:38

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This post has been edited 2 time(s), it was last edited by cobby: 22.11.2007 16:42.
Hi,
i'm not sure if i do the right math, so i wanted to get it checked by somebody who's more experienced in that.
1.) Let's assume that i hold KJs (just an example) under following circumstances:
10 players at the table
 i'm in 7th position (there were 6 folds in front of me and 3 players still to come)
2.) Now let's assume that i'm playing under the same circumstances, but only at a 5 handed table, where i'm sitting in 2 position (there was 1 fold and again 3 players still to come)
Now i'll come to the problem:
Let's further assume that i only want to play the hand if i think that one of the remaining players doesn't hold two specific cards.
So, now to the question: Is the probability that one of the remaining three players holds that specific two cards the same, or is it different? In other words  if i have two cases which only differ in the number of players sitting at the table  does the "overall number of players at the table" affect the probability that somebody holds a certain hand/card (e.g Ax), ALTHOUGH in both cases there're the SAME NUMBER of players left to act (in our cases 3 players).
I'll try to put it in another way, because it's very hard to explain what i mean:
Is e.g the seventh position at a ten handed table the same as the second position at a five handed table (in both cases there three players left to act) if at the ten handed table the first 4 players fold?
Or is there still a difference when i'm considering playing a hand? Because the probability of somebody holding a specifc card combination is higher at the ten handed table than at the five handed table BEFORE the action begins?
I hope you understand my problem and that you can give me some help.
If you don't understand my question post it and i will try to include an example.
Thanks very much in advance!
Greetings
cobby