[NL2-NL10] NL4 SH QTs

    • SPeedFANat1c
      SPeedFANat1c
      Gold
      Joined: 04.01.2009 Posts: 5,071
      Grabbed by Holdem Manager
      NL Holdem $0.04(BB) Replayer
      SB ($7.63)
      BB ($4.04)
      UTG ($2.57)
      Hero ($4)
      BTN ($5.04)

      Dealt to Hero T:club: Q:club:

      fold, Hero raises to $0.16, fold, fold, BB calls $0.12

      FLOP ($0.34) A:club: 2:diamond: 4:heart:

      BB bets $0.16, Hero folds

      BB wins $0.31

      24/11/1.5

      His donkbet shows weakness, he has pocket pair most of the time and he wants to see where he is at. Now the question - does he fold often enough to a 3bet on flop? I have no idea. He is not that agresive, so maybe he is calling.

      Edit: he folds versus steal in BB 79% of the time.
  • 4 replies
    • veriz
      veriz
      Black
      Joined: 20.07.2008 Posts: 65,504
      Hello SPeedFANat1c,

      On flop we raise him, it's not a 3bet. The donk could easily indicate that he has the Ace there but sometimes some aggressive opponents also could take it as a good card to bluff but however I don't really like fancy plays on lower limits. So ain't wrong if you fold there, even would say well played. If he keeps doing such moves then you can just raise him up or float, depending on how loose he is against your donk-raise.

      Best regards.
    • SPeedFANat1c
      SPeedFANat1c
      Gold
      Joined: 04.01.2009 Posts: 5,071
      I don't understand - when preflop someone reraises then it is 3bet, so why on flop it isn't a 3bet?

      Let's say if BB would have reraised me preflop, it would be a 3bet, right? Or in this situation resteal.

      Edit: just a thought came. Preflop the first move is RAISE, so when someone reraise it is a 3bet.
      On flop first move is a BET so then reraised bet is simply raise, and if someone reraise one more time it is 3bet.

      Am I right now? :)
    • veriz
      veriz
      Black
      Joined: 20.07.2008 Posts: 65,504
      Originally posted by SPeedFANat1c
      I don't understand - when preflop someone reraises then it is 3bet, so why on flop it isn't a 3bet?

      Let's say if BB would have reraised me preflop, it would be a 3bet, right? Or in this situation resteal.

      Edit: just a thought came. Preflop the first move is RAISE, so when someone reraise it is a 3bet.
      On flop first move is a BET so then reraised bet is simply raise, and if someone reraise one more time it is 3bet.

      Am I right now? :)
      I take this like that:

      Preflop: Blinds = 1bet, someone raises = 2bet, you reraise = 3bet.
      Flop: Someone bet, you raise = 2bet, villain reraise = 3bet.

      Hopefully you did understand it.
    • SPeedFANat1c
      SPeedFANat1c
      Gold
      Joined: 04.01.2009 Posts: 5,071
      Yeah, I did :) thanks. Now just have to remember it when talking about it :)