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# VP stat question

• Bronze
Joined: 23.08.2010
Not sure if this is a dumb question or not, but I'm going to ask anyway.

I there a direct correlation between a players VP stat and the starting hand he is likely to be betting?

What I mean is if a player has a VP of say 13% does this mean that I can assume he will generally play only the top 13% of hands (77+,A8s+,K9s+,QTs+,JTs,ATo+,KJo+)?
• 6 replies
• Bronze
Joined: 23.08.2010
Obviously was a dumb question after all.....
• Bronze
Joined: 08.12.2009
either that or nobody knows the answer

to the best of my knowledge VPIP shows the percentage of seeing the flop...so a VPIP of 13 means that he sees the flop 13 out of every 100 hands..
• Bronze
Joined: 23.08.2010
I understand that a VPIP of 13 means that they have only entered the pot 13 times out of 100 but what I want to know is this.

Does that mean that the villains range can be appoximated to the top 13% of starting hands?
• Bronze
Joined: 05.01.2011
Nah, not really.

Villain could be a nutter and play a random 13%. More likely, hes playing tight in ep and much looser in lp, and 13% on average overall.
• Bronze
Joined: 08.12.2009
Originally posted by brooksjohn
I understand that a VPIP of 13 means that they have only entered the pot 13 times out of 100 but what I want to know is this.

Does that mean that the villains range can be appoximated to the top 13% of starting hands?

thats not how you should look at it...

for a VPIP of 13, wat your saying may somewhat be proved...but lets say a person has a VPIP of around 60...which means that he sees a flop more than half the time...you cant say that he plays only the top 60% of the hands right? he could have almost any two cards..

VPIP is used to see how often he sees the flop...

If youre in MP2,MP3 or so and on your left if you have a majority of ppl with a very low VPIP you could use it to steal the blinds..its one way where you can have a small edge...ofc you have to consider other stats too..
• Bronze
Joined: 23.06.2008
Last two answers +1 to both.