About Odds

    • kajzr
      kajzr
      Bronze
      Joined: 21.11.2007 Posts: 17
      Hi. Lets say, that i fliped a coin and there droped a tail. Now i have a 75% probability, that now will drop a head (because 0.5^2=0.25), right? So if i will bet 1$ on head, if there droped tail before, and vice versa, i should win in 75% 1$ and lost 1$ in 25% of all bets. I can make this also on roulette, i tried it with funnymoney, but it didnt work much well. :) I expected that, but i dont understand, where is the trouble? Discuss.

      PS: sorry for my horrible english
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