Hello ,I write again in order to make the situation clear for me .

As ragney said - the opponent is a fish , so he would't be inclined to fold many of his hands .

After the call on flop we put him on Tx,Kx,X

X

,JQ.

Against this range we have 43% equilty

So the thing which I don't understand is why should we bet when we are dominated by his range . Aren't we just adding money in the pot .

If we bet and he has Tx , he will most likely fold his 25 % equlty and we win 0.6$ ( or he looses 0.6$ )

If we bet 2/3 and he has X

:X

: , JQ he would probably call .Since he has 25 % EQ against us , he would make mistake , because we would give him bad chances and he isn't having implied odds in your oppinion.

But against Kx we have 4% eq. and we are just giving him our bet - for instance 1.4$

So I will try to make more precise look on the bet

His original range is Tx,Kx,X

X

,JQ - 378 hands

Kx- 176h Tx-128h ( I don't know why are they different ) and X

:X

: , QJ - 93 h . Some hands go to 2 grous so the calculation still would be rough

And if he has Kx half of the times - we loose about 1.3$

If he has Tx and the draws the other half - we win about 0.6$

So our bet would be ~-0.7$

Is my way of thinking right apart from that hand?

Is it right for that hand ?

And again why should we generally bet when we are dominated by our opponent's ranges ?

p.s the 3rd question might sound fishy but I just don't get it , so please explain