*Originally posted by jass1960*

Hi Guys,

Twice last night I flopped 2 pair KQ flop KQ and QJ flop QJ and both times I wqs beaten by QQ and JJ respectively making trips.

I couldn't remember the last time that this happened (and I play a lot of hands). .

So my question to a maths guru - is what is the probability of 3 cards being dealt to 2 players and the 4th hitting on the flop?

Cheers

Jass

So you hold KQ, you assume your opponent holds QQ, what's the prob of a Q being on the flop?

In that case there are 48 cards left which could be on the flop, one of which is the Q. The prob is therefore 3/48 which is about 6%.

If you have QQ, and know your opponent has Qx where x is not Q, then the prob is similarly 3/49 (still about 6%).