*Originally posted by Cooleyman*

*Originally posted by giliNL*

I actually realized that I made a mistake, the odds are ~4.5:1 so not even that bad but yeah, like veriz says you'll have to discount some of the odds due to the flush draw.

Anyway just wanted to correct myself

I think you were right with your original calculation. We would have to pay $0.54 into a pot of $1.33 so our pot odds are 3.46:1. The odds against us drawing to the OESD are 5:1 against (not taking into consideration the flush potential), so the pot is not offering sufficient odds.

I thought that normally when you calculate odds, you include your own bet into the pot that you stand to win, since if you win, you also win your own bet back.

Hence it's 0.54 into a 2.24 pot or ~4,5:1

But in the article here on the site they do present an example the way you say. The logic doesn't make sense to me tho. If you bet, you stand to lose 2.24 5 times, but the one time you win, you win 2.24, not 1.88.

I'm also fairly certain it is calculated this way in my poker books but I don't have them to hand atm.

Either way, you can't call

[edit] you seem to be right tho, so maybe I need to redo my homework