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poker hand

    • blackbird78
      Joined: 01.05.2008 Posts: 1
      Hi i would like to know what the ruling is on the following situation. We are playing a tournament and all action is preflop. First after big blind goes allin with 3000 chips second player pushes allin also with 5000 chips third player only calls the 5000 chips and has 3000 chips left fourth player goes allin but makes a misteake and shows his hand pocket aces before the other player can call his remaining 3000 chips happens that first player has jj second qq and third player kk what happens in this situation is the hand from the player who shows his cards out of turn a dead hand and if not what is the rule ty
  • 2 replies
    • purplefizz
      Joined: 12.03.2008 Posts: 4,508
      hi there,

      im assuming you mean live play, right? sorry im not too familiar with their rules there and i think it might even vary depending on the casino and the tournament. the best way to resolve issues you are unsure of is to consult the tournament director.

      maybe other members can chip in. sorry couldnt be more help.

    • EuanM
      Joined: 07.05.2011 Posts: 531
      Hey blackbird78,

      Thanks for posting!

      Your scenario as far as I understand (no differentiation between FR & SH);

      UTG Shoves 5k
      UTG+1 Calls 5k
      Next player calls the 5k, with 3k left behind
      4th Guy over-shoves and turns his hand over to show aces

      The only person at a disadvantage here is Player four. All the other players now know where they stand, and this information is valid because player four has all his chips in the middle. He has put himself at a disadvantage by showing his hand, and player three can now make a better decision. The aces are not dead in this case, they will play.

      Player three, knowing player four has aces should fold his kings of course.
      All the other guys are already all-in, so they will see the board with player four either way.

      Player four has acted out of turn, but not in a malicious way, and so his hand is not dead. But basically, the ruling comes down to the floor man & what he perceives as foul play.

      If the floor man thinks that player four showed his aces out of turn, to increase his overall chance of winning by forcing the strong, yet weaker hand of player three to fold, then he can make a ruling based on this. Lets say player four knows that his Aces are not good as often four-ways as they are heads-up, and he knows unless he shows that all four players will call him all-in, and to prevent this he shows his aces, then this could be viewed as foul play. But it would be nearly impossible to know something like this, and it's simply speculation.

      It's a strange scenario to ask about, it could be the case player four was that excited to showdown his aces he acted out of turn, but I would never expect play like this to take place, based on my assumptions above.

      All in all, the hand would play. Player three now has the edge because player four showed his hand.

      Just my thoughts, I hope this helps!