Pot odds?

    • deafmute
      Joined: 20.03.2008 Posts: 15
      While reading "Harrington on Hold'em" he mentions several times on how the pot odds are favorable before the flop even comes. An example is when he says hes holding ATs and it cost him $800 to call with $1,785 already being in the pot and he says its 2-to-1 and slightly favorable. I get how its 2:1 but how come this means its slightly favorable? Assuming there was a raise before him does he believe that him hitting one of the Aces constitutes a winning hand or is he solely relying on the nut flush? Is calculating outs before the flop the same as calculating them after the flop? (i.e. 9 outs 4:1 on turn 8:1 on river)
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