# Poker maths question !

• Bronze
Joined: 24.05.2011
I search everywhere but, sadly don't found this one. Or maybe i missed it. So it would be awesome if someone can help me or write a link where i can find this information.

If i have Q 8 pre-flop. And i need to calculate probability to get these Q 8 J cards on the Flop.

So my question is simple how to calculate this?
• 14 replies
• Bronze
Joined: 23.06.2008
Hi there Gajus,

I will move this to the no limit beginners discussion where it may get a proper response.

Regards,

Mal.
• Bronze
Joined: 11.05.2011
how do you know its no limit?
• Bronze
Joined: 11.07.2010
The probability of flopping two pair using both hole cards is 2%.

If you're asking about those specific cards of that specific suit than it's obviously much less but I don't see how that question might help you.
• Bronze
Joined: 03.06.2008
You calculate it as what cards miss:

44/50 x 44/49 x 44/48. Thats your probabillity to miss EXACTLY 2 pairs. Thats 72%. So You have arond 28%.

PS This is true for general 2 pairs, not that specific hand, but u got the idea now
• Bronze
Joined: 03.06.2008
Originally posted by matel17
The probability of flopping two pair using both hole cards is 2%.

If you're asking about those specific cards of that specific suit than it's obviously much less but I don't see how that question might help you.

Can we meet and play pls?
• Bronze
Joined: 24.05.2011
Originally posted by ZeroDegrees
You calculate it as what cards miss:

44/50 x 44/49 x 44/48. Thats your probabillity to miss EXACTLY 2 pairs. Thats 72%. So You have arond 28%.

PS This is true for general 2 pairs, not that specific hand, but u got the idea now
So to get Q 8 J . I will need to do like this: 1/50 x 1/49 x 1/48 ?
• Bronze
Joined: 15.01.2011
Originally posted by Gajus11
So to get Q 8 J . I will need to do like this: 1/50 x 1/49 x 1/48 ?
Yes.
• Bronze
Joined: 15.01.2011
Actually. I messed up.

The first draw from 50 cards, you have 3 good.

3/50

The second draw from 49 cards, you have 2 good.

2/49

The final draw from 48 cards, you have 1 good.

1/48

Therefore:

3/50 * 2/49 * 1/48 = ....

Glad I rectified that. For that specific order on the board, then the YES response stands.
• Bronze
Joined: 03.06.2008
Originally posted by lynius
Originally posted by Gajus11
So to get Q 8 J . I will need to do like this: 1/50 x 1/49 x 1/48 ?
Yes.
NO, dont work that way
• Bronze
Joined: 24.05.2011
Originally posted by ZeroDegrees
NO, dont work that way
Why not because its not enough to say that this is not the right way. You need to write how to calculate correctly. So I look forward to your reply.
• Bronze
Joined: 03.06.2008
Sry for the lazy answer. If you want those exact cards you can calculate it as 3/50 x 2/49 x 1/48 and then divide by 6. The available order that are possible for 3 cards. Its called permutation if you wanna google it.
• Bronze
Joined: 08.05.2009
Originally posted by Gajus11
So to get Q 8 J . I will need to do like this: 1/50 x 1/49 x 1/48 ?
That is the probability of getting exactly Q 8 J in that order on the flop.

If order is unimportant and 8 Q J is permissable then:

3/50 x 2/49 x 1/48 is the probability you want.

(or 1/50 x 1/49 x 1/48 x 3P3)

Rob

(Edit: Simultaneously posted with ZeroDegrees.)
• Bronze
Joined: 03.06.2008
But then again, I'm drunk, so what do I know
• Basic
Joined: 20.01.2012
@OP: You want to calculated the possibility of the flopping Qd8sJc in that order and suit??

PS. If that is the case your hand does not matter.