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Pre flop question!

    • deafmute
      Joined: 20.03.2008 Posts: 15
      I was reading "Harrington on Hold em" and I have a question that has been confusing me throughout the book. In one of his "Betting before the Flop hands" the hero is holding a KJo and it's costing $60 to call a raise to enter a $300 pot (5 to 1) with 2 other players still in who acted before the hero. He goes on to say that the hero is no where near a 5 to 1 underdog here and that calling is the right decision. My question is why is he no where near a 5 to 1 underdog? I understand calculating odds after the flop etc but I am a little confused as to how he tells pre flop. Thanks!
  • 1 reply
    • helemaalnicks
      Joined: 21.09.2007 Posts: 7,195
      good Q!

      The line of reasoning is: the ranges of the other players in the pot are so and so, that the odds against those ranges is better then 5 to 1 to win for KJ. So lets say, the other guys are all in, you have KJ, you have better then 5 to 1 to win, and its a cashgame... then its an easy call ofc. However, with postflopplay, you have to know where you stand, and in livepoker that is a bit easier then in online poker (for an experienced live player that is). Thats why we just fold in that spot. However, with good odds, other hands (78s, 22, etc) we can call here, because those hands are generally easier to play.

      However, you need to make a distinction between deep stacked tournaments and smaller stacked tournaments (live is often short stacked), because of implied odds. FE. If you got 1 to 5 pot odds with 78s, but for 25% of your stack, then you get an easy fold. Look in the sample hand board for the quiz on sooooooted connectors, it might give you some examples of "calls for pot odds". Youll also see that im not to keen on calling for pot odds in 1 table s&g's, since you often get little implied.