Villiain's range = VPIP ?

    • kruger32
      Joined: 14.05.2011 Posts: 242
      When I whip up Equilab to calculate equity against a villain; VPIP = Range right?So I'm sitting at a table. I notice after 50 hands villian's range is 35. Giving him benifit of the doubt I give him a range of 25% in Equilab and play hands which have positive equity right?I'm stupid and befuddled. Help me clear my thought process.
  • 4 replies
    • MJPerry
      Joined: 03.10.2011 Posts: 4,910
      To an extent. His VPIP is his overall preflop range from all positions.

      However, if his range is 30% then:

      - raising UTG his range of hands may be the top 15%
      - open raising the button his range of hands may be 45%
    • kruger32
      Joined: 14.05.2011 Posts: 242
      Didn't think of it that way.

    • Tomaloc
      Joined: 17.01.2011 Posts: 7,013
      then you also have to narrow down that range according to the postflop actions.
      when you get good at that process you'll be well in your way to pro :f_biggrin:
    • William340
      Joined: 10.02.2012 Posts: 170
      to build on what MJPerry said:

      your software that collects the opponents stats may also have more detailed info such as vpip/pfr by position.

      let's take one of my opponents (800+ hand sample)
      overall he's
      vpip 16
      pfr 13

      now by position that breaks down to
      EP - vpip 7 / pfr 7
      MP vpip 6 / pfr 4
      CO vpip 16 / pfr 15
      BTN vpip 33 / pfr 28
      SB vpip 38 / pfr 27
      BB vpip 11 / pfr 8

      as you can see, his "overall" averages out to near his CO stats,
      but the other positions don't look much like his "average".