# Villiain's range = VPIP ?

• Bronze
Joined: 14.05.2011
When I whip up Equilab to calculate equity against a villain; VPIP = Range right?So I'm sitting at a table. I notice after 50 hands villian's range is 35. Giving him benifit of the doubt I give him a range of 25% in Equilab and play hands which have positive equity right?I'm stupid and befuddled. Help me clear my thought process.
• 4 replies
• Bronze
Joined: 03.10.2011
To an extent. His VPIP is his overall preflop range from all positions.

However, if his range is 30% then:

- raising UTG his range of hands may be the top 15%
- open raising the button his range of hands may be 45%
• Bronze
Joined: 14.05.2011
ooooo.....
Didn't think of it that way.

Thanks.
• Bronze
Joined: 17.01.2011
then you also have to narrow down that range according to the postflop actions.
when you get good at that process you'll be well in your way to pro
• Bronze
Joined: 10.02.2012
to build on what MJPerry said:

your software that collects the opponents stats may also have more detailed info such as vpip/pfr by position.

let's take one of my opponents (800+ hand sample)
overall he's
vpip 16
pfr 13

now by position that breaks down to
EP - vpip 7 / pfr 7
MP vpip 6 / pfr 4
CO vpip 16 / pfr 15
BTN vpip 33 / pfr 28
SB vpip 38 / pfr 27
BB vpip 11 / pfr 8

as you can see, his "overall" averages out to near his CO stats,
but the other positions don't look much like his "average".