Accord to Harrington in his cash game book, the calling range of villain should be 7.55% that looks like that

TT-22, AJs-ATs, AJo-ATo, KJs+, KQo

from such range I make my assumption based on the strength of his range forward the flop

Combinations in complete range: 85 [Hero Eq: 40.01%]

Grouped: 63 combos, 74.1% [Hero Eq: 46.94%]

Ungrouped: 22 combos, 25.9% [Hero Eq: 20.2%]

Group 1: 21 combos, 33.3% (24.7% total) [Hero Eq: 20.39%]

Group 2: 6 combos, 9.5% (7.1% total) [Hero Eq: 4.65%]

Group 3: 36 combos, 57.1% (42.4% total) [Hero Eq: 69.47%]

Group 1: Pair with no fd and no sd

TT-99, 66-55, 33, KQs, KQo

Group 2: Set / trips with no fd and no sd

77, 22

Group 3: High card

AJs-ATs, AJo-ATo, KJs

now, because his passive line I should assume that he cannot have group 2 for sure limited (as he should play to gain some value) the choice to group 1 and 2.

Am I on the right track or Im totally an idiot loser that cannot do simple tasks?

TY