*If this is the case, explain to me why the probability of getting villains hand is significantly lower*
// english

I think I get his point...

Hmmm...in 5 card draw high, full house is better than flush cuz prob. of being dealt a full house is lower of being dealt a flush...easy? Easy...2233* is better than AA*** cuz it's harder to get 2 pair than one, easy? Easy...

BUT

AAKQJ is better than AA432 while prob. of being dealt each hand is the same.

Why? Because... it's high card game...can someone find a better answer?

IN Razz you get dealt 3 cards, you have the same chances of being dealt AKQ and A23 while first is a crap and second is a monster. Why? Because... it's low card game...can someone find a better answer?

I can blame 5cd for the same:

say I have AA55x and my opponent (somehow) also have a AA55x

Now we both discard 1. I catch AA554 and he AA55Q. He win...

So I wonder why did he win?! The prob. of catching a 4 is the same like Q so why the hell did he win? Because...