Is the winodds the same on the flop and turn?

    • hvard92
      hvard92
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      Joined: 15.02.2012 Posts: 789
      Is the winodds the same on the flop and turn?

      Forexample, in the pokerstrategy "Outs and odds chart" it says that on a flushdraw, you get 4:1 odds on the flop and 2:1 odds on the turn, does the
      odds on the turn count only if you go all in on the flop?

      I can make another example too.

      If i have A :spade: K :spade: and the flop is 9 :spade: 2 :spade: 5 :heart:
      pot is 0,80$
      opponent bets 0,10$
      I call 0,10
      Turn J :diamond:
      opponent bets 0,50 (Potodds 3:1)

      Do i have 4:1 winodds to call here or 2:1?
  • 7 replies
    • ExternalUseOnly
      ExternalUseOnly
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      Joined: 30.01.2010 Posts: 3,373
      Hey hvard92

      The odds and outs chart gives you the odds of your hand improving from the flop to the river so basically the chance you will hit your card on the turn or river and then the odds from the turn to the river which is your chance to hit your card on the river

      Although you have it the wrong way round the odds of completing a flush from flop to river is 2:1 and then from turn to river our odds get worse (because there is only one card to come) and go to 4:1

      Does this make sense?

      Carl
    • hvard92
      hvard92
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      Joined: 15.02.2012 Posts: 789
      Im a little confused.

      Do you mean that on a regular flushdraw i have 2:1 winodds on the flop and on the turn, my odds get worse and is changed to 4:1?
    • DrDunne
      DrDunne
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      Joined: 29.12.2010 Posts: 3,338
      a lot of the time you won't just be considering shipping it in on the flop and so you have to consider hitting on the next card only and giving up if you miss. so...


      to complete a flush:
      flop --> turn = 4.1 or ~20%
      turn --> river = 4.1 or ~20% still (because you are speculating on hitting your flush at the next card but giving up if you miss, for example..)

      flop --> river = 2.1 or ~33%
      you generally only really need to consider this (flop --> river odds) if you are planning on getting it in on the flop with your flush draw.

      maybe someone good at mathematics can explain it better than me :D
    • metza
      metza
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      Joined: 28.01.2012 Posts: 2,220
      DrDunne explained it fine.

      hvard, in your example though, you've gotta consider that any Ace or King is probably also an out as well. which means that instead of 9 outs we have 15 which makes a big difference. Even if they weren't outs, our opponent has bet twice which means we probably have implied odds as well - meaning we can win more from him on the river if we hit. Meaning we don't need 4:1 on our money to call, 3:1 should be fine.
    • hvard92
      hvard92
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      Joined: 15.02.2012 Posts: 789
      I know. I wasnt really taking the implied odds into count. And i should probably used 67S as an example instead. The only thing i was wondering about was if the odds where the same on the turn as on the flop really. I was thinking more like if i didn't got any implied odds at all. So accord to that, it was probably a bad example. I really appreciate your comments btw. Thanks!
    • hvard92
      hvard92
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      Joined: 15.02.2012 Posts: 789
      Ok. I wanna ask you something. Just an easy example. If someone shoves on the flop with aces, i have the nut flushdraw and the pot odds is over 2:1, is this an instant call?
    • roopopper
      roopopper
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      Joined: 31.12.2010 Posts: 4,289
      Originally posted by hvard92
      Ok. I wanna ask you something. Just an easy example. If someone shoves on the flop with aces, i have the nut flushdraw and the pot odds is over 2:1, is this an instant call?
      2-1 odds or better...yep get your money in the middle :)

      If you are even getting up to 4-1 odds you can ship it here. :)