# Postflop math

• Bronze
Joined: 27.02.2011
Hey,

Lets say we are HU and I raise to 50. Villian calls.
Pot is 100.

x/x, x/x, I bet River 50.

I need to know how much bluffs I need to have in this, assuming he calls 100%, to breakeven.

Do I consider the money invested pre?
Which means I need to have 50% Value, 50% Bluff
Win once -> I win 50 post + 50 pre = 100
Lose once -> Lose 50 post + 50 pre = -100

Do I not consider the money invested pre? (Dead money?)
Which means I need to have 25% Value, 75% Bluff
Win once -> I win 50+100pot = 150
Lose thrice -> I lose 50*3 = -150

I'm assuming the answer would be the second one. Could you explain why please?
I mean, in the second one, I will be down 200 overall after 4 times.

2 years of playing poker and now I ask this
• 2 replies
• Bronze
Joined: 14.12.2010
I'm certainly not a big GTO shark, but I'm pretty sure you need a 3:1 bluff:value ratio as that is the odds villian is getting on a call.

Don't know if that answered the question?
• Bronze
Joined: 27.02.2011
I get what you are saying.

But effectively, aren't we going to be down having 3:1 bluff:value on R and not breakeven considering the preflop money we've invested.

We are treating it as dead money. Why?