*Originally posted by GoOnCal1*

Sigh

Beam me up Scotty

Try it this way-

if I had 100 different sequences of sets of numbers that were placed in a que system , the first sequence being the first from the line in distributing , the sequence distributed 10 numbers to five receivers on one outlet, and the same to another outlet, 2 numbers of the sequence to each individual receiver in a corresponding order.

In ten of the sequences, outlet one, receiver 3, would receive 5 numbers 5's if only number 1 outlet was in operation, and outlet 2 was dormant,

when we run the sequence a second time, outlet 2 is in operation, and the distribution ratio is defined by each individual receiver time of action on both outlets, making the sequence more random and not probabilities of the original sequence of outlet one, receiver 3, of receiving the 5, 5/100

So basically the distribution of the 100 sequences becomes time based distribution.

Am I correct in thinking that outlet one, receiver 3, the probabilities of now getting the 5, is now unaccountable?

a standard dice 1-6, has a 1/6 chance of any number per role

2 dice would have a 6^2 chance of rolling the same number

If I was betting on one dice , and you was betting on the other dice, each time we role we both have 1/6 chance of hitting our betted number.

However , your sequence of rolls would be bimodal different to my roles. Your's and my sequence would be dependent to each dice, and difference to each others sequence.

If we swapped dice, our probabilities remain 1/6, and even if we bet each others spin , our probabilities remain 1/6.

If you rolled number 1, and I bet against you hitting another 1, my probabilities are 1/6, where to you repeat the number one, your probabilities are now 6^2, or 36-1.

In the second game we change the rules, stacked in a que is already predefined roles and results of each dependent dice, a sequence dependent to each of us based on one dice, for every time an even number comes out, we win, for every time an odd number comes out we lose.

We see 100 numbers each, I win only 33% of my numbers, where you win 88% of your numbers,

Your sequence was a wining sequence for you, with a 2-1 chance of getting even , ready predefined by the stored sequence,

Now if you were to alternate between dice, you would then have a bimodal distribution, working off two sequences rather than one sequence, both sequences then becoming differential to the original sequence.

So instead of just a predetermined random luck, you are changing the sequence luck by timing of choice,

sequence one- 246412431.......................

.........bimodal - 236511213

sequence two - 331564115.......................

would this be bimodal or multimodal distribution?