Bounty question

  • 2 replies
    • SDK1987
      SDK1987
      Moderator
      Moderator
      Joined: 12.11.2008 Posts: 27,140
      This has most likely to do with the stack sizing of the players.

      Lets said player 1 has 20bb and has A5, player 2 has 10bb and has A5 as well and player 3 with 15 bb lost the 3 way all-inn with 72o on a 2, 3, 4, 7 and 8 board.

      In this situation player 1 gets the bounty, because he’s the only 1 that has more chips than player 3.

      I expect this is clear enough, but if you have more questions don’t hesitate to ask it.

      Cheers,
      SDK1987
    • LeliannaLee
      LeliannaLee
      Basic
      Joined: 26.02.2016 Posts: 36
      Ah, I get it! Thinking about it player 3 did have more chips than player two because I remember thinking that player 2 wasn't wise to call all in with his hand (a weaker Ace) as he could have been knocked out by either player; player 2 was the original raiser, player 3 shoved all in and player 1 (big stack) went all in over the top, obviously trying to isolate. The big stack had him well covered and the original all in player had a few more chips too. Anyway, I understand why now so thanks for explaining it. Sorry about the newbie questions. :f_drink: