Calling a 3bet for set value?

    • nafar84
      nafar84
      Bronze
      Joined: 20.09.2008 Posts: 546
      On another website I heard one of the coaches say that if the 3bettor is such a nit that you are reasonably sure they have a monster, then it is mathematically correct to set-mine them (assuming 100bb stacks). Thoughts?
  • 5 replies
    • dadude77
      dadude77
      Bronze
      Joined: 26.10.2008 Posts: 1,516
      Depends, if you're ABSOLUTLY sure you can get their stack (or double yours if you're smaller stack) which is hypothetical I guess because can't really ever be sure. Flopping a set (or better) is 7.5-1. So the ratio of what you'd have to call, to the pot+implied stack to be won (whoever's smaller, yours or his) would have to be more than 7.5-1 at the bare minimum, because you don't know how often you'll stack off.
    • Atoks
      Atoks
      Bronze
      Joined: 01.06.2008 Posts: 1,354
      I'm not sure ... been wondering about this for quite some time myself. I guess hero could reduce the call20 rule to call10 rule but at the same time one has to be sure that the other play will stack off. The decision on how to play against a villain that 3Bets us should mainly be made on reads imho.
    • KidPokersKid
      KidPokersKid
      Global
      Joined: 27.02.2009 Posts: 653
      I think that this applies when both you and your opponent are deep ( something like 200BBs) maybe it can work if you both have like 150bbs or something but I am not sure
    • Ejeckt
      Ejeckt
      Bronze
      Joined: 06.12.2008 Posts: 517
      Do we mean a 3bet when we are the original raiser? Or if someone raised, this guy 3bet, and then we're left to act?
    • nafar84
      nafar84
      Bronze
      Joined: 20.09.2008 Posts: 546
      Originally posted by Ejeckt
      Do we mean a 3bet when we are the original raiser? Or if someone raised, this guy 3bet, and then we're left to act?
      No I don't mean coldcalling... it only applies when we're the original raiser.