Hi all and thanks to Nunki, Dandycal and Burek2000 for the helpful responses.

I understand the first part of the equation now: what's needed is either brackets around the 'FE + Bluffs' or for it to be written '100% - FE - bluffs'.

I assume someone can arrange for the article to be fixed?

And I think I understand the last part of the equation now, which sets out that small additional amount we can add on where opponent is bluffing and we are therefore ahead.

But I'm still not clear on the last point.

Another thing... ..."Your call range is reduced by the same amount you believe to be your opponent's bluff frequency."... ...this actually means:"Your call range is reduced by the same amount you believe to be your opponent's bluff frequency reduced." ...meaning your calling range and opponent's bluff frequency increase/decrease linear.

It seems to me the following must be true: the less often your opponent bluffs, the better hand you need to call his donkbet/reraise. So, for example, if you raise with A

Q

from BU and get called by MP3 and flop is K

4

8

and MP3 re-raises your c-bet you have to ask yourself how often your opponent bluffs. If he rarely bluffs then in most cases he will hold a K and you can comfortably fold. If he often bluffs then you may well still be ahead and can consider pushing over the top.

But I'm not sure how this relates to our 'call range', since we have an actual hand and don't need to think about our range. To put it another way, how would it help me to know that this particular opponents bluffs approximately 10% of the time?

If you know he bluffs 10% of the time, are you saying that our call range reduces to 10% (i.e. the top 10% of hands)? or that it reduces by 10% from what it otherwise would have been? Can you give me a practical example to help me understand how it works?

Finally, just to make sure I understand, what exactly do we mean by a bluff in this article? In my example, if villain has

3

4

he also has us beat here since he has a pair. But I'm not sure if this counts as a bluff? So, is a bluff: a) where opponent has complete air and is merely representing some better hand (e.g. K,J in our example); or b) where he has a part of the flop but would be beaten by many better hands which he is trying to get to fold by betting?

TIA

Tim