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some ICM question(s)

    • timukasr
      timukasr
      Bronze
      Joined: 26.05.2007 Posts: 1,820
      So if Klaus has 3000 chips in a 10+1$ SnG and takes places 1/2/3 with probabilities 15/17/20%, then his payoff is
      I assume that Klaus's table has 20k chips. So his chance of hitting first place is 3k/20k? But how do you calculate 2nd and 3rd places?

      Edit: as I read I see that for 2nd place he gets 3k/(20k-3k)=17,6% and for 3rd 3k/(17k-3k)=21,4%

      Is that correct? Why don't my calculations match with the sample?
  • 1 reply
    • ItsSoEasy
      ItsSoEasy
      Bronze
      Joined: 29.05.2009 Posts: 7
      If I'm reading this right his remaining chips have nothing to do with the question. Assuming 1st place pays $5, 2nd place pays $3, and 3rd place pays $2, his payoff should be:

      (.15)($5)+(.17)($3)+(.2)($2) = $1.66

      Of course he paid $1.10 to enter the sng so his actual profit will be 56 cents.