Btw, i don't know how to sort out the information how it's usually seen on the forum :(

blinds 0.01/0.02

I was CO he was BU

I had JJ

raise 0.08

He calls


Q :spade: Q :heart: 4 :heart:

I check
He bets 0.12
I call


3 :spade:


2 :heart:

He shows 5 :spade: 5 :club:

So ok i took the risk by calling 0.12 but i had a feeling that he was bluffing mainly due to past hands(proved to be right)

Tested his bluff by betting a fairly small amount of 0.06 and he called so i felt that he had a weaker hand than QQQ or QQQQ

Betted 0.06 again on the river and surely enough he called

So he shows 55 and i show JJ

Then he says after the hand, that i over valued my JJ which i can understand because i can see how what i did could have been a mistake however, when i said that he contradicted himself due to the fact that he, imo, over valued the 55 too by calling both 0.06 bets he said no.

Now the question is, did he over value his 55 as badly as i over valued my JJ?