How is rake calculated?

    • purpleshoes21
      purpleshoes21
      Bronze
      Joined: 23.04.2008 Posts: 100
      Hi,
      To calculate your rake for a hand, do you take the total rake and divide it by the number of players, or is it more complicated than that (e.g. if someone puts more money into the pot they are counted as having been raked more)
      -Thanks
  • 7 replies
    • shortfuse
      shortfuse
      Bronze
      Joined: 02.07.2009 Posts: 450
      the poker website should tell you

      for partypoker, which i am linked to pokerstrategy with... ring game up to NL10 are raked at 1 per 20 i think with a max (think its $1 per hand)

      here
      http://www.partypoker.com/how_to_play/rake_and_blind.html

      partypoker is a bitch if you want to play tournaments, not only is the choice limitied they sneakily don't tell you the fee directly as if it was helping the player... so annoying e.g they have $1 and $3 tournaments with fee included
    • purpleshoes21
      purpleshoes21
      Bronze
      Joined: 23.04.2008 Posts: 100
      Sorry, I guess my question wasn't clear- I know how much is being raked out of every pot, but how much of the rake out of each pot is considered to be from me? The reason I am asking is because for rakeback, I get 27% of what is raked from me, so how much of the total rake in a hand is considered to have been from me? Would it be total rake divided by the number of players, or is it more complicated?
    • shortfuse
      shortfuse
      Bronze
      Joined: 02.07.2009 Posts: 450
      Originally posted by purpleshoes21
      Sorry, I guess my question wasn't clear- I know how much is being raked out of every pot, but how much of the rake out of each pot is considered to be from me? The reason I am asking is because for rakeback, I get 27% of what is raked from me, so how much of the total rake in a hand is considered to have been from me? Would it be total rake divided by the number of players, or is it more complicated?
      i don't know tbh

      but

      obvious logic suggest it is evenley divided amongst people in that pot, therefore sidepots would solve the problem of one person putting more money in
    • purpleshoes21
      purpleshoes21
      Bronze
      Joined: 23.04.2008 Posts: 100
      I don't think so since I think that you still are counted as having lost money to rake even if you fold preflop or at any other time in the hand
    • purpleshoes21
      purpleshoes21
      Bronze
      Joined: 23.04.2008 Posts: 100
      bump
    • SoyCD
      SoyCD
      Bronze
      Joined: 20.02.2008 Posts: 6,356
      Hello purpleshoes21,

      As a first note; it always depends on the pokersite and their rake system. Some sites have a so called dealt rake system in which your paid rake depends on how much money you invested in the pot meaning you don't actually pay rake if you didn't see a flop.

      On other sites such as Full Tilt you have a dealt rake system where the taken rake is evenly distributed among the people that were dealt into the hand. That means if 20 cents were taken at a 10 handed table, 2 cents would be considered to be from you. Since you didn't necessarily actually pay this rake due perhaps not being even involved in the pot, this system favours tight players. A tight player who isn't involved in a lot of pots might be credited as having paid more rake than he actually did, while loose players are generally disadvantaged by this.

      Best regards
      SoyCD
    • purpleshoes21
      purpleshoes21
      Bronze
      Joined: 23.04.2008 Posts: 100
      Thank you very much for your very helpful reply SoyCD :s_grin: :s_cool: