10/25c NL full ring: what mean bet on flop from EP to pre flop raiser?

    • saneknl
      Joined: 02.06.2009 Posts: 16
      I am plaing at 10/25c NL full ring.

      And I don't understand what means this move:

      I raise from LP and called by 1 player from EP.
      Then comes raged flop like: 883 or 258
      And he bets first on flop 1/2pot or pot.

      What is it usually means from loose player?
      What is it usually means from tight player?
  • 3 replies
    • Bierbaer
      Joined: 27.05.2005 Posts: 7,989
      It is impossible to say that in general.
      If it was a multiway pot (3 or more players seeing the flop) it usually means strength (not always, but reading it as strength is a good default imo, because people rarely bluff in multiway pots).

      If you are in a HU pot you have to find out for every single opponent by yourself. Some are doing it as a bluff, some for value.
      But value!=value. Some players might think that on an 884 rainbow flop their 54s is good and just bet out 1/2 potsize.
      Some only do it if they have A8 in this spot, some even as a bluff with something like T6s.
    • babybooh
      Joined: 13.07.2009 Posts: 39
      ...and some have pp.
    • AlexanderD22
      Joined: 26.08.2009 Posts: 377
      I'd say over pair if villain is calling limp/calling a raise preflop. Maybe he even hit a set.

      Reasoning is that this is one of my leaks in tourneys. Can't seem to pass up low pps in EP/MP preflop, find the set value is too good to pass up as you can almost always get calls to AI on toptop or overpair.

      Different for cash games though for me but many players are predictable. Noticed that many players will bet out to judge the strength of their hand, assuming that you have missed that flop since you raised preflop you likely have a decent hand and not the rags on the board.

      Of course there is also the theory that the first to act on a paired board will take the pot.