set value???

    • hughezy
      hughezy
      Bronze
      Joined: 27.01.2009 Posts: 74
      I keep hearing this said and dont fully understand what it means.....I know that holding a small/medium PP is 11/1 to hit a set post flop but can someone give me an example of this concept.

      Many Thanks
  • 5 replies
    • THeGaME23
      THeGaME23
      Bronze
      Joined: 12.10.2009 Posts: 398
      Set value takes in the percentage it takes to hit a set (11/1 ) and the expected value of deception sets can achieve. If your opponent limps with Aces you you call with 7's, and the flop is Q 3 7 he won't ever think he is beat, so you will double up basically every time. This is just an example though, he could have AK and fold to your bet on the flop.
    • Sasa1234
      Sasa1234
      Bronze
      Joined: 22.05.2008 Posts: 298
      It is not 1/11 it is more like 1/8.5 on flop
    • EagleStar88
      EagleStar88
      Bronze
      Joined: 06.10.2008 Posts: 7,359
      Hi hughezy,

      The figure I heard was 1 in 7 time you hit the set, but not sure if that is flop or all streets. I'm sure one of the coaches would be able to confirm.

      The main principle however is to set-mine cheaply (i.e. only limping or free play in the blinds). Depending on position/stage of tournament/number of limpers etc I also sometimes call a min raise.

      You can do this basically because a set in holdem is a very strong hand and you get implied odds on other stacks.

      I'm no coach and I'm sure there must be a strategy guide on it somewhere in the strategy section, however my own personal tips would be:
      > set mine only 77+ or 88+ (reduce set over set possibilties)
      > only when cheap (limp/freeplay from blinds)
      > only in the first 3 or 4 levels of a tournament
      > only against a big stack (no implied odds against a shorty)

      Just my own personal opinion, not official and others opinions may differ.

      Best regards,


      Bart
    • hughezy
      hughezy
      Bronze
      Joined: 27.01.2009 Posts: 74
      Thanks for the replies.

      I have mainly heard this expression when an early postion raiser or re re raiser states that he bets a certain ammount to " not give set value".

      What does this mean?
    • EagleStar88
      EagleStar88
      Bronze
      Joined: 06.10.2008 Posts: 7,359
      Because of the (relatively) long odds of hitting your set, you really need to see a cheap flop, hence the limp.

      If other players put you on a pair and limping for set value but have a strong hand themselves, they will and should raise the pot up.

      Generally speaking you cannot call a raise because you are already behind your opponent and are unlikely to improve your own hand. If you did hit the set it is a very strong hand, but you need to consider the pot odds, hence why you want to see cheap flops.

      Also if you opponent puts you on a "set mine" then its kind of obvious if you then call/raise any subsequent action that you hit and will not get any decent value.

      Hope this makes sense, if not just shout.

      Best regards,


      Bart