50 euro vs an awkward reg

Hello,

What is the reasoning for making such a large raise sizing pre? If villain is a reg who is competent at all we should never get calls here anyway (and if we do we should expect to be crushed vs QQ+. I guess with your sizing pre we kinda have to get it in anyway, but I think we can just shove pre the majority of the time. It's really annoying because when he makes that limp/raise sizing we're facing monsters 100% of the time, but we handcuffed ourselves with our sizing.

To adjust long term outside of this hand - check back when he limps unless you have value most of the time. You're not getting exploited much at all when you check back - you get a free flop that you play with 100% of your range. You can def toss in the odd raise with the proper gameflow, but 45% would be far too much.

Thanks for the input, much appreciated!

In my eyes, I have 2 options. Either shove pre or raise big as if I raise small, I give all his suited connectors good price to join in and have good equity vs me. He doesn't just have traps in his range, so if he wants to play, I give him a worse price for it and be committed postflop.

Now that I look at it, if he is limp/calling all Ax and some worse hands like T8s, 97o, JTo for 11bb+ (reads I have), then I should def. be just shipping this hand. I guess I wanted also to induce him to l/ship a hand like K6o f.e. as I have it my notes.

Why do you c/b everything but value vs this opponent when he limp/folds 44% of the time on raises? Can't we exploit his tendencies of limp/calling any Ax and some light hands by shoving all the value pre, raising with some crap hands until he adjusts?

Originally posted by kurrkabin
Thanks for the input, much appreciated!

In my eyes, I have 2 options. Either shove pre or raise big as if I raise small, I give all his suited connectors good price to join in and have good equity vs me. He doesn't just have traps in his range, so if he wants to play, I give him a worse price for it and be committed postflop.

Now that I look at it, if he is limp/calling all Ax and some worse hands like T8s, 97o, JTo for 11bb+ (reads I have), then I should def. be just shipping this hand. I guess I wanted also to induce him to l/ship a hand like K6o f.e. as I have it my notes.

Why do you c/b everything but value vs this opponent when he limp/folds 44% of the time on raises? Can't we exploit his tendencies of limp/calling any Ax and some light hands by shoving all the value pre, raising with some crap hands until he adjusts?

I should follow up with a question here as I have to admit I didn't read your notes on this guy for 12-18bb thoroughly. That may be the most ridiculous 12-18bb strat I have ever seen. Is he limp calling to your big raises with Ax type hands? If so, we can just make it 120 and shove 100% of flops with so many hands here lol. By calling there and folding some of the flops, he is literally taking money out of his pocket and putting it into ours.

In response to your question about why I'm checking back most instead of raising nonallin - we get to play postflop vs someone we presumably have a postflop edge vs, without investing anything. That's more of an advantage than attempting to raise pre and play with awkward stacksizes vs whatever he is raise/calling with/raise shoving with.

Fair enough. How do we gain an edge of somebody who limps almost his entire range and could have from Ax to 43s up to j8s and AA?

Because villain will limp/lead almost every hand. At least for me it's very hard to counter strategy that includes a wide limping range(including monsters, middling hands and shit hands) when it comes hand to hand with aggressive approach postflop-meaning he likes to lead/double barrel and doesn't fold often to my c/r often...

Should I just play more-straight forward post by just playing a hand when I have it(expecting for him to try barrel me off) and fold when I dont?