I'm sure the moderators will give you a complete break down on what the absolutely correct play is, but I thought I would post my thoughts in the hopes of learning more if my thinking is wrong.
1. I think the reraise preflop should be three times raise, i.e. to $1.50 not $1 (this is from the literature available on this site).
2. if you get 3-betted I think you have to push all in. your odds are 10%-90% underdog to AA, 33%-65% underdog to KK and essentially a coin flip to any pocket pair QQ and lower. Also, 60%40% ahead on suited connectors. seeing as how you are behind only 2 possible hands in his range, and coin flip and better for the rest, I think a push all in to the reraise is +EV (note: moderators, please correct me if I'm wrong)
3. this flop is tricky. on the one hand you have top pair top kicker but on the other hand JJ, KJ, and KK are all possible hands in his range. However, the villain leads out with roughly 1/3 pot raise. I think a reraise is the correct play because a. he could be Cbetting with a worse hand than yours. b. his response to your reraise gives you information on where you stand in the hand. If he 3bets/calls you should cool off on the turn unless you turn a K. He's not calling a reraise with anything less that AA or two pair. note: this flop play only happens if he flat calls your larger preflop reraise....because if he folds, no flop or if he raises I think you should be all in by flop time anyway.
again, this is what I think your line should be and not necessarily the correct play.