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acceleration123
Joined: 11.12.2010

I would like to make sure if I´m getting it right. Still have a mess in that all though.

I will use an example that I saw in some article. (everything is ment just in a theoretical way)

My hand: JhTs

Villain´s hand: AdKd

Board: JdTc2hQs

POKER STOVE

44 games 0.005 secs 8,800 games/sec

Board: Jd Tc 2h Qs
Dead:

equity win tie pots won pots tied
Hand 0: 90.909% 90.91% 00.00% 40 0.00 { AdKd }
Hand 1: 09.091% 09.09% 00.00% 4 0.00 { JhTs }

Villain bets. This means that I would need to get odds at least 9:1(rounded) to make a profitable call, in order to be +EV(or better, not to be -EV). So am I getting it right ? Or I misunderstood something ?


11 replies
acceleration123
Joined: 11.12.2010

Uah, thank you, I am having hard times to understand some of these concepts and the relations between them, even though they are not that difficult at all :). But I never liked the math.


acceleration123
Joined: 11.12.2010

Ehm, but this is interensting, according to the odds chart, I would need only 7:1 odds to call (6 outs for full house).

But equity says 9:1. What´s the right aproach then ???


MatejM47
Joined: 21.01.2010

Originally posted by acceleration123
Ehm, but this is interensting, according to the odds chart, I would need only 7:1 odds to call (6 outs for full house).

But equity says 9:1. What´s the right aproach then ???

You only have 4 outs to full house. There's only 4 J's and 4 T's in the deck and there's 2 on the board and 2 in you hand so that leaves you with 4 outs left in the deck.


acceleration123
Joined: 11.12.2010

Well ok, but that´s 11:1 odds according to the chart, and according to my equity I need only 9:1


Jan217
Joined: 02.01.2009

9% is 1in11 not 1in9 (11%)


JonikoP
Joined: 15.05.2010

9% is 1in11 not 1in9 (11%)

9% is about 1 in 10. Not 1 in 11.


JonikoP
Joined: 15.05.2010

Villain bets. This means that I would need to get odds at least 9:1(rounded) to make a profitable call, in order to be +EV(or better, not to be -EV). So am I getting it right ? Or I misunderstood something ?

Why not post size of the pot and how much you think you can call? (the next step in the maths)


kiromanAAKK
Joined: 08.10.2009

Because I am in the some situation (try to learning out the math that hasn’t been my strong point so far) I would like check as well if I have understood something
Please acceleration123 forgive me to jump in your space as the topic is pretty the some I had in my mind
I go to use an example like:

Hero: AcKd
Villian: TT+, ATs+, KJs+, AJo+, KQo

Board: Qd Jh 7s

58,410 games 0.047 secs 1,242,765 games/sec

Board: Qd Jh 7s
Dead:

equity win tie pots won pots tied
Hand 0: 31.942% 23.95% 07.99% 13988 4669.50 { AcKd }
Hand 1: 68.058% 60.06% 07.99% 35083 4669.50 { TT+, ATs+, KJs+, AJo+, KQo }

So, villain goes AI on the flop and I got odds 2:1 (68.058/31.942) to call accord what your are saying? Did I get it or I am wrong?
Thanks guys :heart:


MatejM47
Joined: 21.01.2010

Well basically if someone bets pot sized bet into you then you get odds 2:1 then you need 33.33% equity to call since you need to win 1 out of 3 times to break even.

So if you have only a FD on the flop and the pot is 10$ then and he has 10$ left and goes all in then you can call with your 9 outs that give you 36% equity and its +EV.

Basically you need 33% equity when he bets full pot, if he bets 1/2 pot then you need 25% equity to call.


JonikoP
Joined: 15.05.2010

To calculate the equity you need to make a call:

Amount to call / (Amount to call + Size of Pot before call)