We've been calculating this with 3 people for the last hour, and nobody seems to agree to the other ones method.
How it started:
"How do you play your draws?"
"I usually bet them out, except if there are a lot of opponents or calling stations"
"I bet some smallish amount against calling-stations, to fill the pot if I hit"
I don't like the sound of it, since I would say it's better to get a free card then to pay for it.
But I've tried to calculate this, and I can't seem to get it right.
situation is this:
you limp preflop, hit a OESD, villian can only call or check.
How do I callculate it with no flopbet, and with a flopbet of 1/4 pot?
It properbly sounds stupid, but I keep cracking my mind over it.
[edit:changed the topic-title]
