Originally posted by bassyboy229
I think what i meant was, if i, say, had AA.. there's only 2 outs that can improve that to AAA.. so that's 2 outs - should i just remember this as 8:1 = 11% of hitting a set on the flop? for all pocket pairs?.. but if you don't hit, then of course, you only have 2 outs to improve on the hand to hit a set.. surely then using the rule of 4 that's 2outs x 4 to = 8%? with a hand like AA, 8% chance on improvement post flop, pre turn, doesn't seem great.. especially if the pot hits up around 1200 pre flop as i would have raised, depending on position...
You have two outs with AA, but only if your opponent has a hand on the flop, which beats your top-pair, which no draw does, and with AA you will very often have the best hand. Play around with the Equilab to gauge how AA performs against certain other hands & ranges on certain boards.
Originally posted by bassyboy229
if then i'm being asked to call a 400 bet into a 1600 pot, that's 25% pot odds minimum, but the chance of improving is only 8%? would this depend entirely on context of the player in previous hands, and what is on the flop?
Consider relative hand strength and absolute hand strength. With AA on the flop, you only have low equity if your opponent hits his set or straight; again use Equilab to calculate. Most time if you are referring to any form of Hold em, AA will win at showdown, only if you are dominated before then will it not, our objective then is to lose most money, so we use the board and our opponents actions to learn more about what would be the correct action for us in that situation. But all in all aces will be very strong on most board runouts.
Originally posted by bassyboy229
so: with an Js Qs 7c flop, they may well have hit a straight draw, a flush draw, a straight flush draw, or a high pair.. To my pocket Aces with 8% of improving to a set, i am unsure whether or not a bet of 400 into a 1600 would be classed as worth it?
What was the pre-flop action? What do we hold? What are our opponents statistics, stack sizes? 400 into 1600 means we need to call 400 to win 2000 so we have really good odds for most of our own draws and we can raise with fairly strong holdings, but again more information would be required here to make a more accurate assessment.
Originally posted by bassyboy229
As for simple pairs, if i had KcQs off, and the flop came out Ks Js 4c.. i then have top pair, and a backdoor flush draw.. in this case, what are the odds of hitting a set of Kings - a flush (using 2 drawing cards, would that be the number of outs x4.. as a decimal, ^2, as probabilities would need to be multiplied together, or is that me over complicating the maths of it?
We have K
Q
Flop K
J
4
Outs for set: K :diamond:, K
Outs for Flush draw (provided no-one else has a :spade:): A :spade:,2 :spade:,3 :spade:,4 :spade:,5 :spade:,6 :spade:,7 :spade:,8 :spade:,9 :spade:,T
Outs for two-pair: Q
Q :diamond:, Q
2 for a set
10 for a flush draw
3 for two-pair (any queen)
so AA, KK, JJ, 44, KJ, K4 and J4 are ahead of us
aprrox Equity against with our KQ:
AA - 22%
KK - 6%
JJ - 8%
44 - 8%
KJ - 21%
K4 - 35%
J4 - 32%
if our opponent only has those hands on that flop when we have our hand on that flop, on average we have around 18% equity, but consider that this will be a rare occurrence as you will play many more hands and as such will have many more hands in your range ; this is on average (consider our discounted outs in relation to our opponents holdings) when our opponent holds something that beats our top pair on the flop, and we would need certain outs to beat certain hands, but consider that those hands that beat us here which are previously mentiond, are only a few combos of our opponents range, which can be defined in the actions he has taken pre-flop. Against aces on that flop, we have just under 22% Equity, which would be a call if say for example the pot was $100 and our opponent bets $15.
Hope this helps!
-E