I was reading the article and came across the 2nd hand down linked here:
http://www.pokerstrategy.com/strategy/no-limit/258/8/
If I hold a J8s and the flop comes 2h9sKh am I considered to have only the third best possible flush?
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but since there is already Kh on board doesn't that make Qh irrelevant? Also, I think the rule it meant was:
"If the highest card is a jack or smaller, you must discount 1 out, since there are better flushes possible."
Because it says:
"If you are up for the third best possible flush, you must discount 3-4 outs."
SonicXT I think you misunderstood him a bit. 
No the K doesn't make the Q irrelevant if you hold a J-high flush because you always need to create your hand from the 5 best possible cards.
KQ432 
is better than KJ832 :heart:.
We all were beginners in the past and you are here to learn. And asking for this important thing is better than going allin with it, losing a stack and realizing it afterwards isn't it?
So keep asking.
Originally posted by ciRith
We all were beginners in the past and you are here to learn. And asking for this important thing is better than going allin with it, losing a stack and realizing it afterwards isn't it?
Thx.
Btw I myself played accidentally a tourney in my beginning days (freeroll) which was Stud or Omaha.... I was totally confused and just raised as much as possible (why wasting time in a tourney where you don't even know what's good ^^) and was chipleader after a few hands. 