[Closed] NL 5 FR KQos

first of all I would raise to 8BB preflop.
4BB+3BB(limpers)+1BB(out of position) =40cent
As palyed I would reraise him harder on the flop.
Something like 1.5.
And I think I would call his all in because his line: complete/call preflop and donk/raise on the flop doesn't represent a strong hand imo.
I think he may hold some sort of draw or a bad king or even ten.
I just don't think he would donk the flop with a strong hand.

He would re raise a raise to all in? The bet was donk bet if he had a set or something, but the re raise all in I didn't understand. Where did you get the 4BB+3BB+1BB, sounds interesting, is it in some higher level articles?

I would also re-raise his bet on the flop at least 1,5$, since board is drawy and don´t think he would do that always with set or two pair.
He could easily push with weaker hands, so I would call that.
Just Nl 5 players are very bad and they would more lightly get it in with tp or draw (or that is what I believe, should play a little NL 5 level to see, if I´m right^^)

Originally posted by arjun2001
He would re raise a raise to all in? The bet was donk bet if he had a set or something, but the re raise all in I didn't understand. Where did you get the 4BB+3BB+1BB, sounds interesting, is it in some higher level articles?

You can find it in the bronze article.

http://www.pokerstrategy.com/strategy/no-limit/270/4/

there was no raise
You bet 4 times the big blind plus one big blind per opponent who limps in front of you. The players who are in the blinds don't count.

I counted the SB as a limper but I think that's possible too.
And most of the time I add one bigblind to my raise, when I'm playing out of position, because I have to act first postflop and it prevents bluff raises, because the pot is bigger which means my continuation bet is also bigger.
Or at least that's he theory ^^

Oh thanks, I missed that part of the article. Next time I would raise to 1.50, and I was thinking to, but I had no reads on him so I put him on a set or two pair.