hello everyone
a silly question here
I was reading an article about resteals, and it suggests that I should re-steal only if I am giving the opponent at most 2:1 odds. Lets say I have 11bb and I am BB, and BUT steals 3x and has 14bb stack, if I push now that means opponent now has to call 8bb if he wants to play the pot which is now (1,5bb+11bb+3bb) 15,5bb. He has to call 8 to play roughly 16; it is 1against2 is it the same as 2:1 odds?
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Hi benaars,
Moved to SnG forum as it seems you would get a more appropriate response there ok?
Regards,
Mal.
There's a flaw in your example when you sum the total pot. You say you have 11bb but after posting blings if you're in the bb you only have 10bb left before restealing. The total pot is then 1.5+10+3=14.5 and the odds 1:1.8.
Originally posted by dydukas
There's a flaw in your example when you sum the total pot. You say you have 11bb but after posting blings if you're in the bb you only have 10bb left before restealing. The total pot is then 1.5+10+3=14.5 and the odds 1:1.8.
no, I have posted the BB and still have 11bb.
you see you get 1:1,8 and how then I can get 2:1
Originally posted by benaars
Originally posted by dydukas
There's a flaw in your example when you sum the total pot. You say you have 11bb but after posting blings if you're in the bb you only have 10bb left before restealing. The total pot is then 1.5+10+3=14.5 and the odds 1:1.8.no, I have posted the BB and still have 11bb.
you see you get 1:1,8 and how then I can get 2:1
The effective stack is then 12 and BTN has to call 9 instead of 8. Odds are 1.7:1