Hi everyone, this is my first try posting a hand so I hope this is ok.
I've just recently switched to NL FR from Fixed Limits as I've been getting a bit frustrated lately. I've been playing for about a year and always wanted to try my hand at NL so I thoght now would be a good time to start, using the stack PS kindly gave me and the SSS.
Anyway, the hand...
Known players:
[tg]Hero$2.00:///////;UTG+1$11.58:///////;UTG+2$5.33:///////;MP1$3.80:///////;MP2$3.40:///////;MP3$1.70:///////;CO$8.98:///////;BU$0.80:///////;SB$9.90:///////;[/tg]
0.05/0.1 No-Limit Hold'em (9 handed)
Hand recorder used for this poker hand: PokerStrategy Elephant 0.50 by www.pokerstrategy.com.
Preflop: Hero is BB with A♠, Q♦
UTG+1 folds, UTG+2 calls $0.10, MP1 calls $0.10, 4 folds, SB calls $0.05, Hero raises to $0.70, UTG+2 folds, MP1 calls $0.60, SB folds.
Flop: ($1.60) 3♥, 8♣, J♦ (2 players)
Hero bets $1.30 (All-In), MP1 calls $1.30.
Turn: ($4.20) 4♠
River: ($4.20) 9♦
Final Pot: $4.20
Now my question, was I correct in betting the flop like that, with just 1 opponent? I'm happy with the size of the bet as 2/3 of the pot was more than half my stack, just wondered if I should c/f here, especially as this was the first hand of the session and I had no information on the villain.
One thing I did get from this hand was a little advertising value - 10 minutes later I had AA and ended up against the same guy in the same situation and he called me with 88 and I got my money back