Poker Pot Odds

From a quick glance doesn't seem like you will profit even if you go all in.

And fix river to a 7 instead of second 6 :heart:, rigged deck.

Originally posted by NightFrostaSS
From a quick glance doesn't seem like you will profit even if you go all in.

And fix river to a 7 instead of second 6 :heart:, rigged deck.

This ♦

I've moved this thread to our SNG Discussion board for further analysis.

Have a great weekend,
Gary

sorry, I was in a hurry because I had to get ready for work lol! I changed it now.

When you make the calculations-always add your chips to the total pot. Meaning if the pot is 750 and it's 250 chips to call, you are paying 250 to play for a pot of 1000. Or 4:1 pot odds in other words. So you have to be good like 25% of the time. Which is not your direct odds for the straight draw. But you also have some backdoor FD outs(count it as 1 out or 4%).

Another thing would be implied odds if you hit, although being so short, that's not in your advantage.

It's a bit confusing, but I assume villain limps and you are first to act- then just lead with the straight draw. It's unlikely he has Ax. Don't c/c with these effective stack sizes. By leading, you create FE and although not giving yourself good direct odds, you do have outs on later streets in case you get called.

Originally posted by kurrkabin
When you make the calculations-always add your chips to the total pot. Meaning if the pot is 750 and it's 250 chips to call, you are paying 250 to play for a pot of 1000. Or 4:1 pot odds in other words. So you have to be good like 25% of the time.

Correct me if i'm wrong but i always tought that when we use the 'ratio method' to give odds we DO NOT count our chips for the call in the total amount which would mean that here it's 3:1 rather than 4:1 imo. When we give the odds as a percentage then we DO count our chips in. In other words imo 3:1 is the same as 25%, 4:1 the same as 20% etc. Sorry if i sound a bit picky and even more sorry if im wrong

Originally posted by wiarygodny

Originally posted by kurrkabin
When you make the calculations-always add your chips to the total pot. Meaning if the pot is 750 and it's 250 chips to call, you are paying 250 to play for a pot of 1000. Or 4:1 pot odds in other words. So you have to be good like 25% of the time.

Correct me if i'm wrong but i always tought that when we use the 'ratio method' to give odds we DO NOT count our chips for the call in the total amount which would mean that here it's 3:1 rather than 4:1 imo. When we give the odds as a percentage then we DO count our chips in. In other words imo 3:1 is the same as 25%, 4:1 the same as 20% etc. Sorry if i sound a bit picky and even more sorry if im wrong

I always thought it was this way as well where 3:1 you need 25% equity and 4:1 you need 20 and you don't add your call to the pot odds. If not I've been doing pot odd calculations wrong for a year.

Yea, you only add your chips when converting to percentage.

I guess it's me to blame! I am not sure and this is shameful moment!

Basically what I try to say is that if someone bets let's say-250 into a pot of 500, then the pot is 750 and it costs us 250 to play for a pot of 1000, therefore we get 25% pot odds! Which is 3:1, not 4:1, so there percatange and ratio method and this is what I got screwed imo.

So based on the betting sequence here, we would have to bet t510+ on the river to break even?

On the turn you're a 5.25:1 dog. This means you need to be calling 500 at an implied pot of 2625. Since you're actually only calling at a pot of 1500, you must win another 1125 from him on the river, which he does not have so he is too shortstacked for calling turn bet to be +EV.

Oh okay, I get what you're implying here. So it's more +EV to lead out with our draw on the flop if our opponent is limping a wide range of hands on the button?

Say our villain raises any Ace-6+, 66+,any broadway and limps with a2-a5, 22-55, k6s+,Q7s+, j8s+, T8s+, k7o+, q8+, j8+, t8o+, suited connectors and some one gappors then we have about 45% equity on this flop against his limping range.

So if I bet out on the flop, say t300 and the villain pushes for t1800 then the pot is t2600 and it's t1500 for me to call. This then becomes a +EV calll correct?

Thanks,

MB

Originally posted by maythany
Oh okay, I get what you're implying here. So it's more +EV to lead out with our draw on the flop if our opponent is limping a wide range of hands on the button?

Say our villain raises any Ace-6+, 66+,any broadway and limps with a2-a5, 22-55, k6s+,Q7s+, j8s+, T8s+, k7o+, q8+, j8+, t8o+, suited connectors and some one gappors then we have about 45% equity on this flop against his limping range.

So if I bet out on the flop, say t300 and the villain pushes for t1800 then the pot is t2600 and it's t1500 for me to call. This then becomes a +EV calll correct?

Thanks,

MB

Almost. This time you are slightly -EV because you're calling 1500 to 2600 so you need 36.6% equity. We have approximately only 32% equity. If you bet pot size or more on the flop you can give yourself odds to call a shove, but really I think folding the flop is best since you're both quite shortstacked and you'll probably find better spots.

Good point, and thanks for the info! I understand pot odds a lot better now. ♠_love: