Question 8:
The pot is $2. An opponent bets $1 on the flop. You have $1, you'd therefore have to move all-in to continue playing. You are holding a flushdraw. Can you profitably call this bet? a) yes
Pot odds 3:1
Flush draw odds 2:1 (as you are all in and will see two cards because you are all in )
Question 9:
The pot is $2. An opponent bets $1 on the turn. You have $1, you'd have to move all-in to continue playing. You are holding an OESD. Can you profitably call this bet? b) no
Pot odds 3:1
Pot odds 2:1 (as you are all in and will see two cards because you are all in )
Why is the answer no in question 9, what am I missing? Or is the pot odds 5:1 because there is only one card still to come?
Secondly, isn't flushdraw suppose to be two words?
Your input will be appreciated.
Walti
