Can you explain, how you die the math? Here is my approach:
At first, I thought, this is a MUST call. We have a narrow preflopcall, position and know the hand of villain very well... but as mentioned, I tried some math as well:
assumptions:
- Villain raises any AA preflop from UTG
- Villain 4bets any of this AA
- Villain 4bets no other hands
- Villain pushes every Flop
- We know on which Flops we have over 33% vs AA
EV-fold-pre: 25$ - 2.9$= 22.1$
EV-call pre = EV-postflop-broke + EV-postflop-fold
The pot on the Flop is 8.2$*2 + 0.35$ = 16.75$ (pot)
The Stacks are 25-8.2$ = 16.8$ ---> SPR= ca. 1; we need 33% equity to call his push
I use the Omaha-Equilator Tools--> equity-graph for next street to see on how many (relative) Flops we have what equity against AA. From there I can see,
that we have in about 38% of the Flops over 33%.
Now comes the most uncertain part: the mean equity we have in this 38% of the flops:
We would need an integral to get this, but from the graph i estimated ca. 59% mean equity, when we broke.
EV-postflop-broke: 0.38*0.59*50.35$ = 11.29$
EV-postflop-fold: in 62% of the flops we fold and have 16.8$ left: 0.62*16.8$ = 10.42$
EV-pre-call= 11.29$+10.42$= 21.71$
The rake would narrow down EV-postflop-broke a bit: 2.5$ rake would do raked-EV-pre-call = 21.15
So for me it would be a very narrow decision. But with all the assumptions a fold is way superior, of course. A call, even if +-EV, pushes the variance additionally.
PS: In my maths(with this strict assumptions) I see AhQsJcTh as +-EV and AhKsQhTs as definitive +EV.
Regards MGF