Can someone explain the reasoning behind this pre flop raise please, they were in UTG1 and I was in MP1 on an MTT table 9 player blinds were 100/200 they raised 2.5x to 750 everyone else folded my chips were down to about 3500 I had JJ so I called, flop was 345 I bet 200 they called, turn was 2 I decided to call their bluff and went all in, they called and the river was 7 I lost to a straight 7 high which is fair enough I made a bad call I could see the possibility but time was against me as I hadn't had a decent hand for 20 minutes or so and there had been a lot of blatant bluffing but why would you pre-flop raise on a 67 this I don't understand, if I had just folded then they would have won 300
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Hello hardlife66
I have moved your hand to the hand discussions forum.
With JJ I’m pushing with your 3,7k stack (18bb) stack against a UTG+1 raiser.
JJ is not a great hand to slow play with. Further I don’t like to min-bet on the flop. Now he will call with his entire range.
Further I recommend reading the thread https://forums.pokerstrategy.com/forum/thread.php?postid=1432571#post1432571 well.
Here you can read how you can post a hand the right way.
Cheers,
SDK1987
AFAIK, just push it and be happy with it. 750 if its correct its 3.5x and JJ is here either fold or 3b push.
with that low in chips u cant call raises, with your hand u just go allin preflop....
Shove pre.
As played, don't lead flop. Just ch/call or ch/raise. OTT you did not call his bluff, you didn't give him a chance to bluff 