Poker Stars, $0.02/$0.05 No Limit Hold'em Cash, 6 Players
Poker Tools by CardRunners - Hand Details
Hero (MP): $5.05 (101 bb)
CO: $6.17 (123.4 bb)
BTN: $7.73 (154.6 bb)
SB: $5 (100 bb)
BB: $11.52 (230.4 bb)
UTG: $7.57 (151.4 bb)
Preflop: Hero is MP with J
J![]()
UTG raises to $0.15, Hero calls $0.15, CO calls $0.15, 2 folds, BB calls $0.10
Flop: ($0.62) T
J
Q
(4 players)
BB checks, UTG bets $0.29, Hero calls $0.29, 2 folds
Turn: ($1.20) 7
(2 players)
UTG bets $1.15, Hero calls $1.15
River: ($3.50) 7
(2 players)
UTG bets $3.55, Hero calls $3.46 and is all-in
So, vilain is a 21/14 3ag 220h sample reg.
Ott i need 33% and i have like 51% of eq vs a range QQ,TT,AQs+,AQo+ that is widen as it could be here.
If we exclude AQ combos vs a range that consist of TT,QQ and AK which i have put vilain in first place on by the line he took i have BE call ott.
If i just assign him AK combos i don't have a BE call ott so i need to keep hope in implied odds and that board pairs up? How can i calculate that in this spot. Do we exclude both of TT and QQ combos cause we dominate one and lose by other? Where am i wrong?