This was a tricky spot for me in a NL5 game on FullTilt. I didnt even see the beginning of the hand and I pressed check/fold with my hand qj off. The reason why I even was in the hand was because I had posted, it was the first hand of the session. Look what happened
Hand converted with online PokerStrategy hand converter:
Known players:
[tg]SB$9.15:///////;BB$6.06:///////;UTG1$4.80:///////;UTG2$1.64:///////;MP1$5.88:///////;MP2$5.15:///////;MP3$5.00:///////;CO$5.00:///////;BU$4.78:///////;[/tg]
$0.02/$0.05 No-Limit Hold'em (9 handed)
Preflop: Hero is CO with Q:h, J:s.
Hero posts deadblind, MP3 posts deadblind, UTG1 calls, UTG2 calls, 2 folds, MP3 checks, Hero checks, BU calls, SB calls, BB checks.
Flop: (17.50 SB) J:d, T:d, Q:d (7 players)
SB bets $0.35, BB folds, UTG1 folds, UTG2 folds, MP3 folds, Hero raises to $1.00, BU folds, SB calls.
Turn: (47.00 BB) 5:d (2 players)
SB bets $2.35, Hero folds, SB gets uncalled bet back.
Final Pot: 47.00 BB.
Results follow:
SB shows a flush, king high (Q:c K:d)
SB wins with a flush, king high (Q:c K:d).
any comments on this?
I knew that a re-reraise from him on the flop or a big bet on the turn would mean a flush or a straight. And when the diamond came I didnt really see a call anywhere ![]()
Do you think that my reraise on the flop is too loose?