Hi dear poker people,
so according to the solution I'm looking at once we 4bet (to 27BBs) and face a 5bet we are supposed to shove 91% of hands. So basically once we 4bet we're almost always ripping it in.
So I understand it's pot odds plus the fact that our 4betting range is already high up there (top 6% or so).
Kind of just thinking out loud and curious about your input here.
If villain 3- and 5bets to wide or too nitty we can obviously exploit that.
But what if we think we have an edge on our opponent, BUT he is 3- and 5betting the correct frequencies AND also folding the correct frequencies, wouldn't we rather keep the SPR low and try to outplay him in 3bet pots than buidling a huge pot preflop?
I realize these are very general statements and we usually have to look at our specific villain. Just conceptually I wonder if you agree?
Thank you