[Closed] Nl 50 (9,9) 1 overcard; passive plyr 3bet

22 hands don't reflects his real AF. bet 2/3 of the pot/fold against this unknown is a standard play.

Sorry; I should have clarified my post. Obviously correct to c-bet 2/3. However, given the re-raise, it also seems correct to fold as played (also a standard play as you say).

I mentioned AF because villain has seen 18 flops out of 22 hands therefore seems to be very loose; however, with AF of only 1 it seems reasonable to assume that he's played those 18 flops passively. If that's a fair assumption, it makes it less likely that the 3bet is a bluff, I think? Do you think one should never take AF into account with 82% vpip, even with small hand sample?

Thanks

Originally posted by Tim64
Do you think one should never take AF into account with 82% vpip, even with small hand sample?Thanks

You should take the AF into account regardless to his vpip%. all I'm saying it won't be that reliable since the sample is too small.
I would actually take into consideration his fold to c-bet% rather then his AF when I'm thinking on c-betting here.

Why not check his WTS? 42% is quite a lot.

As the overcard is a Q, I'm quite tempted to call his raise. Either that or pushing directly on flop. Villain looks like such a fish.

Hi Tim,

Looking at this WTS, he is definitly a calling station that calls you with overcards and all kinds of hands which you are way ahead against.

Additionally, you have to bet like 40-42% of your stack as a C-bet OOP against Fish. Because of that I am leaning towards a direct shove since his F2cbet% will be low but this is just speculating.

As Im OOP i tend to shove more to negate my position.
Best regards,
Gerv