Hey guys,
Im making a spreadsheet of my overall bankroll and this is probably a really stupid question but, do you include rake in the overall profit? For example, If a player is up $50 in NL10 but has paid $300 in rake does this mean the player is either down -$250, up $350 (rake not included) or up $50 overall? Thanks.
Hi Joronamo,
Yes you would need to include it. Basically all incomings minus all outgoings. e.g.
(Winnings+rakeback+bonuses etc) - (Buyins+tournament fees+rake).
However the majority of platforms deduct rake from every hand played at the time it is played, so if you entered a cash game with $50 and left with $60, you would be up $10 after deduction of rake.
Hope this helps, I can try to explain in more detail if you need it.
Best regards,
Bart
@EagleStar: A bit confusing, could you clarify this more simply? Thanks.
@Harleytopper: Why -$50? Did you perhaps mean +$50?
I am shit at simple arithmetic so pardon me.
EagleStar I understand what you are saying but your answer sort of contradicts itself which is confusing. Look at your second example in the cash game, I understand that in that case you would be up $10 because they deduct from each hand played but where does all that rake go? What happens if you sat down with $50, paid $10 in rake but left the table with $60 are you up $10 or broke even?
Also with my poker tracker: For arguements sake, say it says i am up $100 in NL10 but have paid $300 in rake, where does that put me?
you sit with 50, for every hand you play you pay rake(that goes to the house) if by the time you leave the table you have 60, that means you already won 10 and if you have rakeback that will be added later on to your winnings as well.
If you are up 50$ over lets say 10 000 hands and in that time you paid 300$ rake then you are up 50$ and you dont include rake,you can only include rakeback that you will get.
Originally posted by Joronamo
I understand that in that case you would be up $10 because they deduct from each hand played but where does all that rake go? What happens if you sat down with $50, paid $10 in rake but left the table with $60 are you up $10 or broke even?Also with my poker tracker: For arguements sake, say it says i am up $100 in NL10 but have paid $300 in rake, where does that put me?
If you sat down with $50 and left the table with $60, but paid $10 in rake... that means that you won $20 from your opponents, but the $10 has already been subtracted during the hand, so you end up with $60. This puts you at +$10 after the rake is paid, not breakeven.
If PT says you are up $100 but paid $300 in rake, that means you have won $400 from your opponents, but after the $300 rake is deducted during those hands, you end up with only $100. So you are +$100 overall.
lol, you ask what 'profit'means and you use the phrase 'up $50' in your question.
do you not use those two in the same way? what do you mean by 'up $50'?
if by 'up 50' you mean you have 50 more in your account that before, then...
and if you mean that before rake you won $50 off your opponents, then how would you know that you'Re up 50?
@ Kruppe: up 50 means +50...
Anyways guys thanks for your help. Its funny you got to admit, a simple thing like paying rake can be understood in many different ways. Its kind of mind boggling when you think about it as its not as simple as you think. Well especially not for me since Im not the best mathematician. Some of you had different answers to others which made it hard to grasp but I get it now. Its good news too because before this thread I thought that if a player was +$50 in NL10 and paid $300 in rake he was down -$250! Now I realise he is really up $350 but paid the $300 as rake so you dont really need to count it.
@ Kruppe: By +50 i mean that if you look at your poker tracker and it says your $50 in the green and next to it, it shows your rake.
