I´ve played that strategy for a while and I´m still confused how to play pre-flop:)
1)NL 25, my stack 5$, MP2 stack 25$ I raise UTG with AK 1$, tight BSS re-raise MP1 2,5$. To me it means aces, kings or sometimes AK. According to the strategy I should now move all-in, because I have left 4$ and my raise was 1$, 4:1. But if I know that I´m mostly behind, why I still have to move all-in?
Would there be any difference, if SSS would re-raise all-in from MP1?
2) Same situation, only this time I have JJ. Now I´m even more trouble than before, so I would fold here, although article recommended moving all-in
3) I have AK from MP2, tight BSS player raise 1$ from UTG, my stack is 5$, according to the article I should move all-in because I if make 3$ then I put in 2/3 of my stack. Same problem here with JJ. The best thing I could hope is coinflip, but I think that I´m behind. If I have JJ also don´t like to get stacked.
If SSS would raise, I would fold here my AK and JJ, because I´m way behind and my EV is -.
Even I have earned 3000PP, that means I´ve probably played over 20k hands, I still don´t know pre-flop principles, which means I don´t play perfect pre-flop game and I would loose money in the long run. To me it just seems wrong to get stacked every single time against aces and kings and I try to avoid that as much as I can.
To me most NL 25 BSS (25$+) seems tight and they re-raise SSS players only with premium hands.
