Originally posted by AninIII
Originally posted by SilverSag
Villain is a regular, very good TAG with the best winrate from my regular opponents. UTG+1 ($23.65)
Hi,
I don't understand it.
You say he is a regular and sits down with less than 100BB?
Then he calls a minraise of a potential fish and overcalls your 3-bet FR?
This seems to me not the best move, but it screams SMALL POCKETPAIR.
Given that info, he has there set 95% of the time and wants to protect.
Against set you have 9 outs ~ 36%. (I don't have an equilator right now.)
You have to call 18,35$ to win 29,70$.
You need 18,35/(18,35+29,70)~38%. => Fold if he only has sets.
BUT: If he has overpairs with one spade in his range + random bluffs or straight or one-card FD, too. => +EV spot
What did he have?
Best regards,
Anin
P.S.: Villain can't have trips on that board, only sets. (check title)
Hi
I don't understand what is there so difficult to understand ♦ He is a regular and by that I mean that he is one of my top 10 most encountered opponents. That has nothing to do with how good or bad he is. I have regulars who regularly lose money as well. This one keeps winning and wins a lot - his winrate on 8000+ hands I have on him is ~30 bb/100h.
About his stack. On Everest there is only something like a half a second window, when you can rebuy for next hand, which is almost impossible to do if you are multitabling, so it is possible that he lost previous hand and did not manage to rebuy fast enough. That means nothing, it happens to me a lot as well.
OK, so it seems that I judged his hand correctly but miscalculated odds and should have folded
...then again - he COULD still have only a pair...
p.s. I was under the impression that "set" and "trips" is the same thing - 3 of a kind, or am I wrong on this one too?