Originally posted by pleno1
Originally posted by Ickki
Originally posted by pleno1
Ok, we WANT to have a 3bet value range, a calling range and a 3bet bluffing range, vs regs.
Is this generally the case that we want 50% Value 50% Bluffs? Or does this change, when Villain has higher or lower FT3bet? I.e. if he has 80% Ft3bet, shouldn't our 3bet Range consist of 20% Value and 80% Bluffs?
Generally, we should aim to have 50% bluffs, 50% value hands, just from a balanced perspective, but we can always manipulate this. For example, Btn opens, we 3bet AJs from the SB, this is initially for value because he will peel JQ/JK and worse aces, but when he 4bets we decide to fold
If somebody has an exploitive stat then its likely we don't need to be balance vs them. For example, if it folds to us in the SB and somebody folds to 55% of steals, we should open 100%, once they change their strategy we can then start choosing different hands for different parts of our range.
I'm confused now. Some people say from a GTO perspective you should 3bet bluff the same fraction of hands as villain folds to 3bets. So if he folds 80% to 3bets I should have 80% bluffs and 20% value or did I get this wrong?
I.e. I want to 3bet around 25% of Villains opening Range, say he opens 28% from CO, I want to 3bet 7%. And he has fold to 3bet of 80%. Does this mean I should value 3bet 1.4% and bluff 3bet 5.6% of my range?
From your previous post it seems like I shouldn't, but rather balance it 3.5% value and 3.5% bluffs. But then I wouldn't be exploiting the fact that he folds too much, would I?