Known players:
[tg]Position_Stack:hands/vp$ip/RaisePreflop/AF/WTS/ORL/BBvsSteal/W$SD;UTG2$0,62:59/39/22/6,0/31/67/0/20;MP1$1,63:28/54/0/0,3/38/0/-/67;Hero$2,91:///////;[/tg]
0,01/0,02 No-Limit Hold'em (8 handed)
Hand recorder used for this poker hand: Elephant.Base 0.99 by www.pokerstrategy.com.
Preflop: Hero is CO with A♠, K♣
UTG2 raises to $0,08, MP1 calls $0,08, 2 folds, Hero raises to $0,24, 3 folds, UTG2 raises to $0,62 (All-In), MP1 folds, Hero calls $0,38.
Flop: ($1,35) 9♠, 9♦, 5♥
Turn: ($1,35) 6♠
River: ($1,35) 4♦ (2 players)
Final Pot: $1,35
Results follow (highlight to see):
UTG2 shows (Ah Qd)
Hero shows a pair of nines (As Kc)
Hero wins with a pair of nines (As Kc)
The question is, was it right to call his all-in preflop?
I figured that my AK would have good chances from the flop to the river... and from playing a reasonable number of hands at the table, I figured that my opponent had maniac traits and he could do this with something inferior... but well, he could actually have AA/KK, which he'd certainly play the same way.
Still, it's like my third day playing "good" poker... I'd like to know whether that was a reasonable line of thought or if that's actually a leak.
[edit: included his Elephant stats]
[later edit: ended up copying the wrong hand. Oops!]
